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/sci/ - Science & Math


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9542705 No.9542705 [Reply] [Original]

Solve this with clear solution and get selected to join our DeepWeb mathematician forums .

>> No.9542710

Do your own homework.

>> No.9542726 [DELETED] 

>>9542705
Solve using proof by contradiction: assume that there are m, n such that m != n and S(m) == S(n).
Using log base 2:
S(m) = S(n)
2^2^m + 1 = 2^2^n + 1
2^2^m = 2^2^n
log(log(2^2^m)) = log(log(2^2^n))
log(2^m)*1 = log(2^n)*1
m*1 = n*1
m = n, contradiction, therefore S(m) != S(n).

>> No.9542736

>Do your own homework

Nice excuse

>> No.9542790

op here .
/sci/ disappoints . huh .

>> No.9542841

>>9542705
If you want to show there are infinite prime numbers you can do it in less roundabout ways.

>> No.9542872

>>9542705
This is evident by Euclid's gcd algorithm reduction.

>> No.9542880
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9542880

>>9542705
>DeepWeb
>2020-2

>> No.9544277

>>9542705