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/sci/ - Science & Math

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9258717 No.9258717 [Reply] [Original]

what happens if you perform an inverse laplace transform on a transfer function and then multiply it by a time domain input? As opposed to the normal way of doing things which is to multiply the transfer function by a frequency domain input and then perform the inverse laplace transform?

>> No.9258725

Is this SQT? I'm having the hardest time understanding the Fenyman's method of integration. The partial derivative is applied to the function in the integral, but I don't know where the hell that b goes in the new function.

>> No.9258747
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9258747

this is now a catto thread

>> No.9258750
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9258750

>>9258747

>> No.9258751
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9258751

>>9258750

>> No.9258757
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9258757

>>9258750

>> No.9258763
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>>9258757
kek'd

>> No.9259452

,

>> No.9260913 [DELETED] 

>>9258717
Multiplying in the s-domain is convolution in the time domain. Performing the inverse Laplace on a transfer function will move it back to the time domain where you would do a convolution - it doesn't give any sensible results if you just multiple it with you signal. The whole point of Lapacians in system/control theory is that you can skip doing the convolution process since it is time consuming and not intuitive.