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/sci/ - Science & Math

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8446745 No.8446745 [Reply] [Original]

$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \psi (x) * \frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) = 0$. Why is this? I know you can't actually cancel the dx terms.

>> No.8446756

It's generally not true.

You probably got this from a very special quantum mechanics momentum expectation value, huh?