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/sci/ - Science & Math


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7367510 No.7367510 [Reply] [Original]

>> No.7367517

>Polynomial equation
>Non-smooth

>> No.7367518

>>7367517
Read closely.

>> No.7367524

Bump.

>> No.7367539

The solution to the hodge conjecture is ignored while topics like the gay gene are getting attention? Come on sci!

>> No.7367585

Bump.

>> No.7367595

>>7367539
Fuck off. This is a well known troll.

>> No.7367600

>>7367595
The proof is there. The question is whether it is correct. Can a grad student verify? At least find Waldo.

>> No.7367602

Don't even know Hodges conjecture but this seems fine. If anything he just needs to polish a little to make it a rigorous proof but that is to be expected from a undergrad paper.

>> No.7367603

>>7367600
Grad student here. It looks correct, but you're going to have to fill in the details. Enjoy your $1000000 OP.

>> No.7367622

Thanks.

>> No.7367625

victor is schizo

>> No.7367634

That's irrelevant.

>> No.7367642

is it?

>> No.7367662

It's high functioning sza as far as I can tell. Kindly get lost.

>> No.7367664 [DELETED] 

>>7367662
that's your delusions talking.
you shouldn't trust them

>> No.7367665

>>7367664
This thread is about the proof. Reported.

>> No.7367679

>>7367510
Can you explain what you mean in step 2? Sorry for my ignorance but I don't see how step one implies step 2. The rest of the proof seems okay.

>> No.7367701

Certainly. A polynomial equation has a graph with turns or curves. Those of the rational are smooth and turn while retaining a curve. Those of the irrational are sharp and are not curvy or smooth.

>> No.7367706

well done, OP.

mind if i take the credit?

>> No.7367715

>>7367701
Can I get an example?

>> No.7367719

Why isn't the thread blowing up? I've scored among the greats for Guatemala!

>> No.7367728

>>7367719
>implying I'm not writing it up in tex as fast as I can so I can send it to the Annals of Mathematics and get dat $$

>> No.7367735

http://m.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=%28x%5E2%29%2Bpi&x=0&y=0

>> No.7367763

>>7367735
>wolframalpha page for x^2 + pi
What are you saying?

>> No.7367777

>>7367763
The parabola disproves the whole thing.

>> No.7367784
File: 99 KB, 1280x720, Applesauce Bitch.jpg [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
7367784

>>7367763
>>7367777

>> No.7367785

No. It does not. The pi is a constant in that equation. The proof remains correct.

>> No.7367787

>>7367785
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=pi%28x%5E2%29%2Be

>> No.7367804

No. The proof is correct. I don't think there's any error.

>> No.7367807

>>7367804
No it's not. Not all complex polynomials with irrational coefficients are non-smooth. Plus, learn to math in your math.

>Prove this or at least provide an example of a non-smooth complex polynomial with irrational coefficients.

>> No.7367816

>>7367804
>provided counterexample
>responds proclaiming there is no error
>people laugh

>> No.7367822

victor is schizo

>> No.7367824

>>7367807
Let <span class="math"> p(x)=\pi \cdot x [/spoiler]. <span class="math"> \pi [/spoiler] takes an infinite amount of energy to compute. The only way to go from one speed to another instantly is if acceleration has a sharp point, which takes infinite energy. In other words the function isn't smooth. Therefore <span class="math">p(x) [/spoiler] has such a sharp point. QED

>> No.7367826

>>7367807
Yes they are. I'm not going to prove basic Calculus I for you. Every polynomial with irrational coefficients has corners in its graphs instead of smooth curves.

>> No.7367830

>>7367826
>at least provide an example of a non-smooth complex polynomial with irrational coefficients.

>> No.7367831

>>7367826
P(z) = zsqrt(2) is linear, smooth, and continuous.

>> No.7367833

>>7367826
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/23534/roots-of-a-polynomial-with-irrational-coefficients

>> No.7367837

>>7367826
what then do you say about the counterexample?

>> No.7367909

Bump

>> No.7367913
File: 39 KB, 562x437, Ohwow.jpg [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
7367913

>>7367824

>> No.7367921
File: 98 KB, 894x880, comradevictor.jpg [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
7367921

>>7367913
>mfw

>> No.7367930

>>7367824
>>7367824
Uh isn't p continuous here? Its derivative exists ergo it is continuous. In fact this is just a line with slope pi. Also that is not the only way to accelerate instantly, any jump discontinuities will do that too

>> No.7367939

>>7367930
You realize you are trying to argue with /sci/'s resident schizophrenic right?

>> No.7367946

>>7367930
Uh, no. If you instantly go from one speed to another, you have infinite acceleration, which takes an infinite amount of energy to accomplish. Also, the digits of an irrational number go on forever, so computing one takes an infinite amount of energy. Therefore, the linear function with slope <span class="math">\pi[/spoiler] must have some kind of discontinuity or sharp point.

>> No.7367953

>>7367946
How can people say things like this and not feel stupid. You don't even know if time is granular, what makes you think infinities are even necessary much less decisively exist?

>> No.7367957
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7367957

>falling for bait of this quality

keep it classy /sci/

>> No.7367961

>>7367957
It's not bait, Comrade Victor is a real schizophrenic who posts nonsense on /sci/

>> No.7367962

>>7367953
Time isn't granular. That's why there must be discontinuities. Infinities may or may not exist, but going instantly from one velocity to another is discontinuous which is expressed in the fact that it requires infinite energy, in theory. Since calculating the digits of an irrational number also requires infinite energy, any polynomial with irrational coefficients must also be discontinuous.

>> No.7367987

>>7367962
I have no real knowledge of deeper mathematics, which is likely why I hold the (perhaps primitive) opinion that if you have designed a system t represent reality with so many factors you don't understand, it's simply hacked together. It could seem to work at first, but be fundamentally broken. The common us of "infinity" is a symptom of this, it's a magic concept that just makes things work.

I don't know if subdivision of particles has an end, nor if time is actually done in ticks (or discrete units), but I'm apt to think things are ultimately finite. They just aren't easily measurable. When people immediately throw around the idea "you'd need infinite energy!" I don't agree with it, and it doesn't make any sense. Both intuitively and via every other bit of knowledge we've amassed.

To think people actually argued viciously with Einstein when he became attached to the idea of a hidden variable. I've yet to see anything satisfactory against it to this very day.

>> No.7368008

>>7367510
>polynomial equation
>undifferentiable
ebin

>> No.7368009

>>7367987
It's a metaphor to demonstrate the proof. An easier example involves the kinetic energy required to move from one point to another which is a function of velocity squared. Ignoring relativity, it is obvious that a continuous motion from point a to b takes a finite amount of energy. However, an instantaneous (discontinuity) change in position requires "infinite speed", even reaching the finite speed of light requires infinite energy for a massive object, which is why it does not happen in physics.

However, mathematically if my polynomial also has irrational coefficients, which similarly require infinite energy to calculate, the polynomial itself must display discontinuous phenomena.

>> No.7368017

>>7368009
It doesn't matter if it "requires infinite energy to compute". Smooth = infinitely differentiable. (πx)' = π. (π)' = 0. The shape of the manifold matters, not its specific values.
Are you going to say that y = π isn't smooth either? It's a flat line!

>> No.7368024

>>7368017
No, because I proved that any polynomial with irrational coefficients is not smooth. Therefore <span class="math"> f(x)=\pi [/spoiler] is not smooth.

>> No.7368033

>>7368024
f'(x)=d/dx(pi)=0
d/dx(0)=0
...

Hence it is smooth.

>> No.7368038

>>7368024
No you didn't. You just said it isn't. But you said wrong.

>> No.7368039

>>7368033
Wrong. <span class="math"> f(x)=0 [/spoiler] is smooth because it is a polynomial with rational coefficients. I am using smooth in the informal sense of its graph, which must necessarily have sharp points or discontinuities.

>> No.7368042

>>7368039
Where in the graph of f(x)=π is there a sharp point or discontinuity? Care to point it out?

>> No.7368044

>>7368042
You are too stupid if you can't see it

>> No.7368046

>>7368044
No, I'm just asking you to pull off an impossible feat. Specifically, pointing out a sharp point in a straight line.

>> No.7368047

>>7368044
Confirmed as 12 year old with autism or simply a tryhard troll.

There is no discontinuity in a straight line, even a 9 year old can understand this.

>> No.7368084

>>7367939
No. But the more you know...

>> No.7368088

>>7368042
The number of discontinuities of <span class="math"> f [/spoiler] is dense in its graph, which look like <span class="math"> \mathbb{R} [/spoiler], so pick any open interval and there will be an infinite number of them.

>> No.7368098
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7368098

>>7368088
Whatever you say. It's defined everywhere and its slope is zero everywhere, hence it's differentiable everywhere.

>> No.7368108

>>7368088
1. At all discontinuities of a function, the derivative does not exist. Yes or no?

2. The derivative of f(x)=πx is f'(x)=π. Yes or no?

3. Since π exists, the derivative of f(x) exists for all x. Yes or no?

Therefore there are no discontinuities.

>> No.7368133

So is the proof right?

>> No.7368143

Bump

>> No.7368145

>>7368143
>bumping from page 1
I didn't ask you to prove your stupidity, that was already self-evident.

>> No.7368150

>>7368133
No, but you won't believe me anyway so why ask?

>> No.7368729

Bump

>> No.7368768
File: 66 KB, 900x900, 1418267988946.jpg [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
7368768

>>7368088
BTFO
The teachings of NJ Wildberger prevail again

>> No.7368835

>someone with barely able to grasp high school algebra attempts the hodge conjecture, one of the most abstract and complex problems in all mathematics

>> No.7368871

>>7367824
>>7367946
Why the fuck are you talking about energies and speeds?

>> No.7369105

>>7368871
That was my first thought, I mean pi isn't even applicable

also, muh fractals
>p.p.s. muh fractals is a hint
>p.p.p.s. OP is talking about a solve for what a variable actually is

One last thing, Victor, I messaged you on facebook, do you not know what a matrice is?

>> No.7369489

The proof is correct! I've won a million dollars!

>> No.7369543

>>7369489
so do you listen to anybody else or just delude yourself repeatedly

>> No.7369555
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7369555

fucking nonsense gobbledigook

get on my level

>> No.7369570

>>7369105
> a matrice
Chewy... is that you?

>> No.7369590

>>7369489
Pics or it didn't happen.

>> No.7369643

The proof is right there perfect. The only criticisms are reiterations of already refuted "errors" claimed by trolls. Glory to God!

>> No.7369658

>>7369643
Do you have any idea how crazy you are?

>> No.7369669

>>7368835
To be honest it's more impressive than just assuming you're not educated enough, not reading or attempting the hodge conjecture, and only doing your assignments
He will have learned more just from looking up the definitions.
And he might have even understood what Could be shown in order to satisfy the proof requirement, even if he fudged a big step.

>> No.7369671

>>7369669
Except he's got all the definitions completely wrong.

>> No.7369675

>>7369669
There's problems in almost every one of his steps.
And his solution, if it was at all correct, is incredibly trivial.

He doesn't even know what smooth means ffs.

>> No.7369709

>>7369675
I quite like his alternative intuition for smoothness in terms of a particles speed.

>> No.7369719
File: 37 KB, 640x480, image.jpg [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
7369719

>>7369675
Smooth definition is used correctly. Pic related is me in a new suit I bought I might wear to the prize ceremony.

>> No.7369727

>>7369658
If he did, he wouldn't be as crazy

>> No.7370277
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7370277

>>7369555
REMOVE H2O

>> No.7370355

>>7367961
>>7369658
>>7369658

This dude isn't trolling. He posts on this music message board all the time and everyone is fed up with him. I'm serious.

Victor please stop posting on here and there

>> No.7370360

Fuck I shouldn't have bumped this, please just let this thread die. 4chan is definitely not the best place for him.

>> No.7370505

Shut the fuck up

>> No.7370613

>>7368042
>>7368039
>>7368033
>>7367824
>>7367777


Holy shit, all these people who don't know that there's a difference between the graph of a polynomial function and a complex projective variety.

I need to stop coming here.

>> No.7371090

I won!!!

>> No.7371295

Where else can I share my proof? They took it gdpwn on pf

>> No.7371298

>>7371295
Send it to a professor so he can laugh at your incompetence you fucking retard.

>> No.7371303

Most people are saying it's correct though?

>> No.7371305

>>7371303
No they aren't you delusional retard.

>> No.7371692

The sarcasm in this thread, fills me with awe and love for my fellow man.

>> No.7371771

Irrational functions have curves that are discontinuities everywhere because all the range values are representable on a plane or number line only as approximations. So the proof is correct.

>> No.7371782

>>7368017
Try driving your dad's car at pi miles per hour then retard.

>> No.7371801

>>7371771
Every point is isolated to itself.

>> No.7371808

>>7371771
>Irrational functions have curves that are discontinuities everywhere because all the range values are representable on a plane or number line only as approximations.
But the function itself is not an approximation, only our representation of it in a drawing is an approximation. This has no bearing on the function itself, which can easily be proved differentiable everywhere. Does the derivative exist for all x? Then it's differentiable.

>>7371782
Irrelevant.

>>7371801
Also irrelevant.

>> No.7371827

>>7371808
The function must be infinitely differentiable to be smooth. Irrational functions are not so.

>> No.7371836

>>7371827
>The function must be infinitely differentiable to be smooth. Irrational functions are not so.
They are so and this has been proven in the thread.

Take the irrational function f(x) = πx. What is it's derivative? π. Does π exist? Yes. Therefore the derivative exists everywhere. Thus it's an irrational function is smooth. Why do you keep ignoring this?

>> No.7371852

That's not smooth because the radically different change in rate of change results in a turn in the opposite direction. At that point you start going back. Resulting in a corner.

>> No.7371857

>>7371852
>That's not smooth because the radically different change in rate of change results in a turn in the opposite direction.
There aren't any differences in the rate of change. It's a straight line. It's derivative is constant. It's rate of change is constant. Take your meds and remember your high school math Victor.

>> No.7371876

>>7371857
Nah the gradient is still jagged. My point holds. Plus perfectly straight lines are useless to topology.

>> No.7371879

>>7371876
>Nah the gradient is still jagged.
I just proved it's not. You have no argument, therefore you're wrong.

>> No.7372639

Try driving your dumb car at pi miles per hour then retard. It's impossible.

>> No.7373189

>>7372639
You're insane. I respect the effort but your inability to accept criticism and accept your "proof" is incorrect is what's holding you back from progressing into a more mature STUDENT and individual. You are very green and very young, don't just learn the fundamentals MASTER them. You obviously have a very limited understanding of advanced matts this you need to learn more. Grow up.

>> No.7374816

>>7373189
Answer the question: what would happen if McFly set the time machine to travel to EXACTLY pi-years?

>> No.7374840

>>7374816
exactly.

By Wildberger's theorem, irrationals don't exist

the hodge conjecture is simply a lemma to widberger's theorem

>> No.7374868

Finally someone with some sense!

>> No.7374883

>>7372639
Easy, drive in a circle with a radius of 1/2 mile with each circuit lasting an hour.

>> No.7374972

>>7374883
That's not speed.

>> No.7374994

As you continue differentiating an irrational function the derivative gets closer to zero, indicating a non smooth function

>> No.7374995

>>7374994
> indicating a smooth function
ftfy

>> No.7374997

>>7374995
No. Indicating a NON smooth function/curve

>> No.7375011

>>7374997
If you can continue taking the derivative it's a smooth function.

>> No.7375019

>>7375011
No. If you can differentiate it infinitely it is smooth. Even then it may turn around. Otherwise it's discontinuous.

>> No.7375020

>>7375019
>Even then it may turn around.
What does this mean?

>> No.7375070

Negative derivatives cause sharp turn arounds in the graph

>> No.7375079

>>7375070
No they don't.
f(x) = -x

>> No.7375085

>>7374816
any irrational number described by a digital representation would be continuous. So it could be done

>> No.7375113

Can a graduate student verify the proof? I'm sick of calculus students in this thread

>> No.7376107

Bump

>> No.7376109

>>7376107
fuck off victor.

>> No.7376206

Jelly?

>> No.7376210

>>7376206
Of your schizofrenia. No, not really.
Take your meds.

>> No.7376211

>>7375113
Graduate student here.
You're fucking retarded.

>> No.7376219

>>7376211
You're supposed to point out specific errors in the proof.

>> No.7376230

does someone seriously think one of the greatest mysteries in math can be solved in 12 simple steps?

>> No.7376238

>>7376219
2 doesn't follow from 1.
Are you really using blackboard font for a generic function?

>> No.7376258

>>7376238
Sigh.
Just retake Calc 1 idiots.

>> No.7376259

>>7376258
Just take your meds Victor.