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/sci/ - Science & Math


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7308031 No.7308031 [Reply] [Original]

Can anyone post a proof that taking the definite integral of a range is the same as doing a Riemann sum over that range as n goes to infinity?

I've been looking but can't find one. Thanks.

>> No.7308032
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7308032

>>7308031
here ya go

>> No.7308036

>>7308031
Here ya go, buddy
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gFpHHTxsDkI

>> No.7308045

>>7308036
that isn't general, that is just one specific function.

>> No.7308051

>>7308031
I don't understand what you're asking.
What's your definition of an integral if it isn't the limit of a Riemann sum?

>> No.7308060

>>7308051
The anti derivative of the function.

>> No.7308067

is integration (Riemann integration at least) not defined that way?

>> No.7308070

>>7308060
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_calculus

>> No.7308074 [DELETED] 
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7308074

Let <span class="math">\epsilon > 0[/tex] and [tex]f: [0,1] \to \mathbb R[/tex] be a continuous function.
Use uniform continuity of <span class="math">f[/spoiler] to find a <span class="math">\delta > 0[/spoiler] such that <span class="math">|x-y| < \delta \Rightarrow [f(x) - f(y)| < \epsilon[/tex].
Let N = 1+\lfloor 1/\delta \rfloor. For all n \ge N, we can write <div class="math">\left|\int_0^1 f(x)dx - \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{1}{n}f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\right| \le \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \int_{k/n}^{(k+1)/n}|f(x) - f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)| \le \epsilon</div>[/spoiler][/spoiler]

>> No.7308075

Are you asking for a proof of the FTC?

If you don't know one why don't you just look it up? There are so many different versions with different levels of generality fitting varying levels of sophistication out there.

>> No.7308078 [DELETED] 

Let <span class="math">\epsilon > 0[/spoiler] and <span class="math">f: [0,1] \to \mathbb R[/spoiler] be a continuous function.
Use uniform continuity of <span class="math">f[/spoiler] to find a <span class="math">\delta > 0[/spoiler] such that <span class="math">|x-y| < \delta \Rightarrow [f(x) - f(y)| < \epsilon[/tex].
Let <span class="math">N = 1+\lfloor 1/\delta \rfloor[/spoiler]. For all <span class="math"> n \ge N[/spoiler], we can write <div class="math">\left|\int_0^1 f(x)dx - \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{1}{n}f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\right| \le \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \int_{k/n}^{(k+1)/n}|f(x) - f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)| \le \epsilon</div>[/spoiler]

>> No.7308079

>>7308060
kek

>> No.7308080

>>7308074
>>7308078
:^(

>> No.7308081

>>7308070
Thank you.

This was the section I was satisfied with

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_calculus#Proof_of_the_second_part

>> No.7308083

>>7308081
There are better proofs out there. Literally every calculus book and analysis book would have a version, not counting the hundreds google will find for you.

>> No.7308086

>>7308080
Yeah sorry, here, I hope this one works:
Let <span class="math">\epsilon > 0[/spoiler] and <span class="math">f: [0,1] \to \mathbb R[/spoiler] be a continuous function.
Use uniform continuity of <span class="math">f[/spoiler] to find a <span class="math">\delta > 0[/spoiler] such that <span class="math">|x-y| < \delta \Rightarrow [f(x) - f(y)| < \epsilon[/spoiler].
Let <span class="math">N = 1+\lfloor 1/\delta \rfloor[/spoiler]. For all <span class="math"> n \ge N[/spoiler], we can write <div class="math">\left|\int_0^1 f(x)dx - \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{1}{n}f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\right| \le \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \int_{k/n}^{(k+1)/n}|f(x) - f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)| \le \epsilon</div>

>> No.7308088

>>7308083
link a better one? I'm not a good judge of these things

>> No.7308092

>>7308086
>>7308086
Can we go ahead and talk about how bad /sci/ needs a TeX preview button?

>> No.7308104

>>7308036
fail

>> No.7308115

>>7308086
oh, okay, yeah, now I totally understand

*rolls eyes*

>> No.7308121

>>7308115
If you don't understand that, then you have no business studying FTC. What he laid out is the most basic proof based pretty much only on the definition of the real numbers and continuous function.