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/sci/ - Science & Math


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6830989 No.6830989 [Reply] [Original]

Is there any proof that infinity, infinitesimals and continuity exist? Why would continuous real numbers exist? You can't use infinity or infinitesimals to prove that they do by the way.

>> No.6830995

axioms

>> No.6830996

What the fuck are you talking about?

>> No.6831014

Infinitesimals do not exist in the standard formulation of the reals (Dedekind cuts or Cauchy sequences of rationals). One can easily see why after considering the Axiom of Archimedes:

<span class="math">\forall x\in\mathbb{R} \exists n\in\mathbb{N} : x<\frac{1}{n} [/spoiler]

Hence, there is no smallest real.

However, there is a large field called "non-standard analysis" which does admit infinitesimals, though I'm not familiar with it.

Non standard analysis is not anymore powerful than standard analysis-- any theorem you can prove in non-standard analysis you can prove in standard analysis.

I think some prefer non-standard for philsophical reasons, but the profession generally uses standard analysis. If I'm not mistaken, one can say that the difference between them is the axiom mentioned above.

>> No.6831015

>>6831014

oops

should be

<span class="math">\forall x\in\mathbb{R}, \exists n\in\mathbb{N} : \frac{1}{n}< x<span class="math">[/spoiler][/spoiler]

>> No.6831026

>>6831014
Get on the nonstandard analysis hype train: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IS9fsr3yGLE

>> No.6831039

>>6831014
Is the axiom of Archimedes a tautology?

>> No.6831043

>>6830989
Assume the set of naturals is finite.
this implies that there exists some natural number N such that N is greater than or equal to all natural numbers. Since there is an axiom in number theory such that for any natural number n, n+1 is also a natural number, we know that adding 1 to N creates a natural number. Since there is an axiom that states x+1 > x for all real numbers, and the naturals are a subset of the reals, we know that there is a natural number N+1 such that N+1 > N. This contradicts our assertion that N is greater than or equal to all natural numbers. Since N is arbitrarily defined, we know that this property exists for all natural numbers. Therefore, we know that there is no largest natural number. For every natural number, there is a greater natural number. Therefore the cardinality of the naturals is infinite. This proves that infinite exists as a concept describing a set of numbers

>> No.6831048

>>6831039

in standard analysis it's a theorem not an axiom. it's called an axiom for historical reasons.

It follows from the definition of order on the reals

>> No.6831052 [DELETED] 

>>6831014
nigga you centuries behind

infinitesimals are real

>> No.6831053

>>6831026
I can't understand what that guy says.

>> No.6831077
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6831077

>>6831026
Why listen to this con when his whole field is debunked by this man?

>> No.6831082

>>6831077
Why listen to Wildberger when he was debunked by Jacob Barnett?

>> No.6831128

>>6831082

Why listen to Jacob Barnett when he was debunked by /sci/?

>> No.6831130

>>6831128
Because he wasn't.

>> No.6831132

>>6831128
Who listen's to /sci/ anyway?

>> No.6831150

>>6831130
Counterpoint: Yes he was.

>> No.6831170
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6831170

>> No.6831188

>>6831170

that was great

Wildberger 4 lyfe

>> No.6831189

>>6831170
Remember that time when people actually gave a shit about your intuitionist math?
Yeah, I don't either, because everybody who was alive back then is dead now.

>> No.6831209

>>6831189
Almost anyone who writes actually-formal proofs does it some form of intuitionistic type theory. ZFC is only popular among people who don't actually use it.

>> No.6832225

>>6831014
>Infinitesimals do not exist
Ok, so differentials don't exist either, and thus the derivative being the quotient of two differentials (dy/dx) must be bullshit either.

>> No.6832229

>>6831015
>for any real number x there exists a natural number n the inverse of which is smaller than x

Yes, so? How does that defy the existence of infinitesimals?

>> No.6832251

>>6831043
You don't need tu use R to prove that result, the definition of the successor over the interger is enough (Peano axioms basically). Your proof still works without asuming x+1>x for all x in R.

>>6831014
>>6831015
You Archimedes Axiom doesn't entails that there is no smallest real, you simply proved that you can find strictly positive reals as close to zero as you wish. In order to prove that there is no smallest real you must consider negative reals as well.

The difference between standard and non-standard analysis is three axioms, that are a part of non-standard theory and not a part of standard theory. The essential bonus with those axioms is that, given a set E, they allow you to deduce the existence of an object x for which P(x,A) is true for all standard A included in E as long as for all standard finite A included in E there is a standard y such that P(y,A) is true.

For instance, for all finite family of standard (traditional) integer numbers, there is an standard integer stricly greater than all members of the family. Non-standard analysis allows you to deduce from that that there is a (non-standard) integer number stricly greater than all standard integers.

You can see it as a clever trick for writing proofs faster and making problems easier.

>> No.6832258

>>6831043
This guy gets it

>> No.6832281

>>6832251
But numbers are not actually real and math is a tool not a science. Trying to calculate the true value of an imaginary concept is just give you a proof for circle jerking.

You are all faggots, study something that exists in this fucking universe.

>> No.6832293

>>6832281

That was a terrible troll attempt.
Be a little more subtle.

>> No.6832397

>>6832225
wow this guy seriously doesn't get it, Retake calc I.

>>6832229
It doesn't dipshit

>>6832281
>How Can Ouw NumbNumbs Gets Real Iff I's Not Reals???

>> No.6832919

>>6832251
I take it you learned nonstandard with the IST route?

>> No.6832974

>>6832281
infinity exists in the universe.

>> No.6832983

Charles Sanders Peirce rules!
"In 1908 Peirce wrote that he found that a true continuum might have or lack such room. Jérôme Havenel (2008): "It is on May 26, 1908, that Peirce finally gave up his idea that in every continuum there is room for whatever collection of any multitude. From now on, there are different kinds of continua, which have different properties."[93]"

>> No.6832985

>>6832983
How do I Lowenheim-Skolem?

>> No.6832987

>>6832985

I find it is useful to believe in a ruler.

>> No.6833049

>>6832225
>quotient of two differentials
>watch as I take a differential operator and use it as a two separate variables
You're the guy in this image aren't you?

>>6831236