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4070590

Anonymous Sat Nov 26 17:06:11 2011 No.4070590 [Reply] [Original]

One has a function f(x) = 1/(x-1). If f(1), we get 1/0. Can 1/0 be written as 1/0 = infinity?

>>	Anonymous Sat Nov 26 17:07:11 2011 No.4070592 Nope.

>>	Anonymous Sat Nov 26 17:07:16 2011 No.4070594 Depending on who you ask, it's either undefined or positive/negative infinity.

>>	Anonymous Sat Nov 26 17:07:16 2011 No.4070595 Undefined, not infinity.

>>	Anonymous Sat Nov 26 17:09:24 2011 No.4070598 >>4070594 derp The function IS undefined at that point. However, it approached positive infinity on one side of the asymptote, and negative infinity on the other side of the asymptote.