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/sci/ - Science & Math

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OP Mon Sep 5 12:52:56 2011 No.3689981 [Reply] [Original]

Why is

n!/(n-2)! = n(n-1)

?

>>	Anonymous Mon Sep 5 12:53:56 2011 No.3689984 Because God said so. Didn't you read the bible in your math class?

>>	Anonymous Mon Sep 5 12:54:56 2011 No.3689990 Kahn academy has some great videos on the subject, go find those

>>	sage Mon Sep 5 12:55:56 2011 No.3689995 n! = n(n-1)(n-2)! (n-2)!/(n-2)! = 1 n!/(n-2)! = n(n-1)1 = n(n-1)

>>	Anonymous Mon Sep 5 12:57:56 2011 No.3690005 n! = n * (n-1) * (n-2) * (n-3) * ... * 1 (n-2)! = (n-2) * (n-3) * ... * 1 therefore, after division, only n * (n-1) remains

>>	OP Mon Sep 5 12:58:56 2011 No.3690012 File: 23 KB, 1024x768, winner2.jpg [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google] >>3689995 Of course! That's brilliant! Thanks.