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/sci/ - Science & Math


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[ERROR] No.3608731 [Reply] [Original]

Why are magnets magnetic? I know the preschool explanation "because it's made up of lots of smaller magnets" but that's doesn't actually tell me anything.

If you can magnetize iron why can't you magnetize everything? What's different about it.

>> No.3608743
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>Why are magnets magnetic?
Why are spaghetti spaghettic?

>> No.3608744
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[ERROR]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ferromagnetism#Origin_of_magnetism

>> No.3608749

fucking metal, how do they ionize?

>> No.3608761

>>3608744
citation needed

>> No.3608764
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[ERROR]

An electron possesses a "spin" that gives it a magnetic moment; that is, it behaves like a tiny magnet. When all the electrons in an atom or ion are paired, the magnetic moments of the electrons effectively cancel each other, and the substance is diamagnetic. When a diamagnetic substance is placed in a magnetic field, the motions of the electrons are affected in such a way that the substance is very weakly repelled by the magnet. When an atom or ion possesses one or more unpaired electrons, the substance is paramagnetic.In a paramagnetic solid the unpaired electrons on the atoms or ions of the solid are not influenced by the electrons on adjacent atoms or ions. The magnetic moments on the individual atoms or ions are randomly oriented. When placed in a magnetic field, however, the magnetic moments become aligned roughly parallel to one another, producing a net attractive interaction with the magnet. Thus, a paramagnetic substance is drawn into a magnetic field.

Pic related
(a) Diamagnetic; no centers (atoms or ions) with magnetic moments. (b) Simple paramagnetic; centers with magnetic moments are not aligned unless the substance is in a magnetic field. (c) Ferromagnetic; coupled centers aligned in a common direction.

>> No.3608771

>>3608761

http://www.doitpoms.ac.uk/tlplib/ferromagnetic/printall.php

>> No.3608776
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<span class="math">\mathbf{E} = - \nabla \phi - \frac{\partial \mathbf{A}}{\partial t}[/spoiler]
<span class="math">\mathbf{B} = \nabla \times \mathbf{A}[/spoiler]
<span class="math">\nabla \cdot \mathbf{D} = \rho[/spoiler]
<span class="math">\nabla \times \mathbf{H} - \frac{\partial \mathbf{D}}{\partial t} = \mathbf{J}[/spoiler]
<span class="math">\oint \bf{\vec{E}} \cdot d\bf{\vec{A}} = \frac{Q}{\bf{\epsilon_0}}[/spoiler]
<span class="math">\oint \bf{\vec{B}} \cdot d\bf{\vec{A}} = 0[/spoiler]
<span class="math">\oint \bf{\vec{E}} \cdot d\bf{\vec{l}} = - \frac{d\phi_B}{dt}[/spoiler]
<span class="math">\oint \bf{\vec{E}} \cdot d\bf{\vec{A}} = \mu_0*I + \mu_0*\epsilon_0*\frac{d\phi_E}{dt}[/spoiler]

>> No.3608815
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>>3608776
> he pasted a bunch of equations that have absolutely nothing to do with the question

>> No.3608833

>>3608764
>>3608771
thanks guys that helps me a lot. Don't fully understand it but it's starting to make sense.

>> No.3609134

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wMFPe-DwULM

WHY!!!

>> No.3609144

>>3608815
>he posts on /sci/ without being able to recognize Maxwell's equations

Very relevant. Fucking USELESS to OP, but it's /sci/; you can get either understandable responses or truth from this fucking board, pick o-
>>3608764
well hello I stand corrected then, well done there you

>> No.3609181

Because they create a fairly strong magnetic field. Any answer more true than that simply requires you to suspend your concept of reality but can be boiled down to: It obeys this set of equations, because that's how the universe works.