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/sci/ - Science & Math


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2729201 No.2729201 [Reply] [Original]

what gives mathfags?

>> No.2729234

>mfw i am learning that shit tomorrow in calc 3

>> No.2729319

Would you care to write better, and actually say what everything in your notation is?
I really don't understand your notation.

>> No.2729330

>>2729319
fuck greek symbols, use cyrillic for your variables!

>> No.2729334
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2729334

>> No.2729338

>>2729330
they are not symbols they are letters from our fucking alphabet

>> No.2729347

>>2729338
>letter
>symbol
>glyph
>character

same fucking shit

>> No.2729362
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2729362

>MFW you use <span class="math">\int[/spoiler] instead of <span class="math">\oint[/spoiler] for closed integrals

>> No.2729379

>>2729362

What makes closed integrals special? I've seen some examples of them but I don't get what's done differently. Does it have something to do with line integrals?

>> No.2729411

>>2729379
They ARE line integrals, but closed.

>> No.2731048 [DELETED] 

OP here, was sleeping.

>>2729319

I am using physicists' differential calc notation. Let's restrict to Reimannian manifolds, then the first equation says that the integral of the divergence of a vector field over the whole manifold is zero (Stokes Thm); the second equation says for any scalar function f on the manifold we can find a vector field v satisfying div(v)=f. The third equation says, for all f, the integral of f over the whole manifold is zero.

>>2729362

btw, I see what goes wrong in 1 dimension (S1), namely that you can't solve eqn 3 for all periodic functions to get another periodic function (eg if f=sin(theta)^2, and dv/dtheta = f, then v is not periodic, so it isn't a vector field on the 1-sphere.

My notation is the usual one for differential geometry, the M under the integral sign means integrate over the whole manifold

>> No.2731062

OP here, was sleeping.

>>2729319

I am using physicists' differential geometry notation. Let's restrict to Reimannian manifolds, then the first equation says that the integral of the divergence of a vector field over the whole manifold is zero (Stokes' Theorem for compact without boundary manifolds); the second equation says for any scalar function f on the manifold we can find a vector field v satisfying div(v)=f. The third equation says, for all f, the integral of f over the whole manifold is zero.

>>2729362

My notation is the usual one for differential geometry, the M under the integral sign means integrate over the whole manifold


btw, I see what goes wrong in 1 dimension (S1), namely that you can't solve equationn 3 for all periodic functions to get another periodic function (eg if f=sin(theta)^2, and dv/dtheta = f, then v is not periodic, so it isn't a vector field on the 1-sphere.) But I'm not sure what the general argument for any dimension and any compact boundary-less manifold is.

>> No.2731141
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2731141

In general, not writing the measures, i.e. dx, dV and so on is a bad idea.
Before I say anything,
are you familiar with the notion of differential forms?

>> No.2731145

>>2731141

I was using the notation of a fixed volume form which was omitted (i've seen this done a lot). Yes, technically f should be a n-form and v should be an n-1 form

>> No.2731165

>>2731145
I don't have a definitive global answer but the implication

okay then first of all, your statement can be written

dv=f·dVol

can be solved for all f such that v is a smooth vector field is a bit over the top. Let f be constant for example, which would violate inf_M f=0, then v would be a vector field with only one entry which is a coordinate function which is certainly nonperiodic

>> No.2731171

-"okay then first of all, your statement can be written"

>> No.2731185

Stokes doesn't say anything with covariant derivatives.

>> No.2731193
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2731193

mhm, you got me confused about the conditions for stokes theorem now..

let T^2 be the flat torus of length 1cm·1cm, then the metric is g=diag(1,1) and thus the volume form is det(g)dx^dy=dx^dy=d(x·dy)=dVol

clearly int_M d(x·dy)=1 as is has to be since the Torus has an area of 1cm^2.

I conclude that it can't be stated that

Int_M dv = 0

on a compact manifold.

There must be some conditions (maybe they are so that there are just so few possible admissible vector fields)

>> No.2731197
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2731197

>>2731185
ein thread über stokes theorem
muss ja ein gefundenes fressen für dich sein :D
Und, irgendwelche ideen was die conditions in dem fall angeht

und das \del wird wohl ein konventioneller "grad" sein

>> No.2731209
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2731209

I guess to give a general answer we need some kind of "hairy ball theorem" which says admissable (periodic) vector fields are already closed such that dv=0 and
dv=f·dVol
can never be solved

>> No.2731232

>>2731197
Stokes hat kein del oder nabla drin sondern ein d und nix anderes.

>> No.2731280

Emma Stone is the best thing about this thread.

MOAR

>> No.2731286
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2731286

>>2731232
ich würde nie auf die idee kommen was anderes als d zu schreiben ;)

>>2731280
I agree

>> No.2731319

... überhaupt das Nabla "Del" zu nennen geht mir echt aufn Sack. Scheiß Erstimathe.

>> No.2731365
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2731365

>>2731319
mhm, ich mag die überschneidung auch nicht, aber ich würde nicht sagen, dass es die kovariante Ableitung zwingen mehr verdient hat

>> No.2731446

>>2731365
Naja, einfach nur "Ableitung einer Form" reicht ja nicht, da gibt's ja äußere, Lie, kovariante, partielle, ...

>> No.2731459
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2731459

>>2731446
Das sind alles Lie Ableitungen :)

>> No.2731460

Oh, and I might want to add that OP's question is wrong. Ignoring the retarded notation, the integral over an exact form f is zero on a manifold with boundary.

>> No.2731464
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2731464

Pawn to E5

>> No.2731513

OP here

talked to a math guy. On a compact manifold without boundary, one cannot always find a v satisfying D.v=f, as I certainly found on S1.

>> No.2731547

wow, so much notation fail in here...since when does one use a nabla for divergence?! what the fuck is this shit?!! yesimad

>> No.2731562

So much foreignfag ITT.

Still, the Emma Stone pics make up for it.

>> No.2731570

>>2731562
there's just two germanfags in here, one of them spouting major nonsense...

>> No.2731644

>>2731570
Only one Germanfag.

>> No.2731657

>>2731644
and what's with your friend? Austrian or something?

>> No.2731712

>>2731547

in physicists' differential geometry notation, nabla usually denotes the metric compatible derivative operator. why's everyone so bitchy about notation, it don'r matter.

>> No.2731773

>>2731712 in physicists' differential geometry notation
There's still no measure in your integral.

>> No.2731790

>>2731712
>metric compatible derivative operator
uh, why isn't the Levi-Civita connection (i.e. covariant derivative) "metric compatible"? I don't quite see your point here...

>> No.2731796
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2731796

>>2731657

>> No.2731807

>>2731712
>why's everyone so bitchy about notation
Because you're using non-standard notation without defining it properly in your OP. Either you use something that can be found in all mainstream math literature or you carefully define it for us. But blindly assuming that everyone is gonna use your retarded (and for fucks sake it's retarded, where's your measure?!) notation is retarded. Retarded.

>> No.2731823
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2731823

∫ ∂ fag_in_here > ∞

(I ran out of Emma)

>> No.2731826

>>2731773

I'm using a common shorthand. For example the integrand of the left hand side of the first equation is really shorthand for (nabla_[a1) (V^b)_|b|a2...an] where n is the dimension of the manifold, [ ] denotes anti-symmetrization, | | denotes that there is no anti-symmetrization over the contracted indices, and I'm using abstract index notation. So we're integrating an n-form over an n-dimensional manifold, which is perfectly well-defined.

>> No.2731831

>>2731790

it is, that's the derivative I'm using

>> No.2731845

>>2731807

sorry, it's standard notation in physics texts. I guess it's not in math circles. anyway, i wouldn't think there are that many ways to misinterperet what I wrote.

>> No.2731850

>>2731826 (nabla_[a1) (V^b)_|b|a2...an]
Get out.

>> No.2731869

>>2731831
wtf are you on mate? first you say it's Stokes' theorem and implying your nabla stands for divergence and suddenly is the Levi-Civita connection?! Stokes' theorem has nothing to do with the Levi-Civita connection!!

>> No.2731891

>>2731869
Stokes' theorem: The theorem that says that the integral of df over a region is equal to the integral of f over the boundary, where f is a differential form and d is the exterior derivative.

This can be written in terms of any derivative operator, including the Levi-Civita one.

>> No.2731896

>>2731869
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stokes%27_theorem

>> No.2731908

>>2731891

Actually, Stokes theorem is much more fundamental, though the special case you´ve mentioned is often seen in physics, especially electrodynamics.

>> No.2731984

>>2731908

I think the version I wrote, in terms of differential forms on smooth manifolds, is pretty damn general.

>> No.2732032

>>2731891
>>2731896
what?! no for fuck' sake. if the nabla in OP's pic denotes the covariant derivative then Stokes' theorem cannot be applied here. period.

>> No.2732042

>>2731984

lrn2references

>> No.2732119

can someone tell an englishfag who's only an amateur differential geometer what just happened itt

>> No.2732145

>>2732119
physicist uses retarded notation without defining it for anyone and gets confused himself trying to apply Stokes' theorem where it isn't applicable. Also how is one an "amateur differential geometer"? You just reading books for yourself or are you in a introductory lecture to differential geometry and thus consider yourself a novice ergo "amateur"?

>> No.2732682

>>2732032
>>2732145

fuck you. The generalized Stokes Theorem includes the divergence theorem ("Gauss' Theorem") as a special case, and as long as the levi civita volume element (sqrt(g)dx1dx2...dxn) is assumed (what the fuck other measure do you think it would be, from the context), this theorem says that the first equation in the OP picture holds on a compact manifold without boundary. Suck it.

>> No.2733583

>>2732682
>levi civita volume element
nigawut

>> No.2733753

>>2733583

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Levi-Civita_symbol#Ordinary_tensor

>> No.2733790

>>2733583
I wrote what the fuck I meant, sqrt(g)dx1dx2...dxn. If you have a fetish for precise definitions, read appendix B of Wald's relativity book; equation B.2.9 defines the volume element I was talking about, and the rest of the appendix explains integration on manifolds. Stop being such a pussywad.

>> No.2733823

lol at OP and thread

it is that "for all f" that is the problem/troll

when the picture is just about functions are del v

>> No.2733842
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2733842

>>2733823
many red faces

>> No.2733904

>>2733823

yes, we already figured out what the problem was, see >>2731513 for example. Thanks for your fucking input.

>> No.2733938

(OP btw) so i ask i question whose answer wasn't obvious to me, eventually figure out the answer thanks to help from some helpful people, and everyone else bitches that I didn't know the answer to begin with. If I knew what was wrong with my question in the fist place, I wouldn't have asked it. Guess I couldn't have expected any different; it's 4chan after all. gonna go fap on /s/ now.

>> No.2733957

ITT: OP doesn't know what the Levi-Civita connection is and thinks it's divergence. Then cries when everyone points out what an uninformed moron he is.

>> No.2734066

>>2733957

lol. the contraction of the covariant derivative of a vector field is the generalization of divergence to curved spaces, and in fact it is commonly called the divergence of the vector field (at least in physics circles).

>> No.2734078
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>> No.2734095
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2734095

>> No.2734108
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