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/sci/ - Science & Math


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11699494 No.11699494 [Reply] [Original]

∫xdx on [−∞,∞] is equal to 0. If you disagree, you are objectively wrong and should fuck off.
>inb4 b-b-but if x=2+v then ∫(2+v)dv on [−∞,∞] so ur wrong
then you'd have to change the limits of integration and it would be different infinities so that's irrelevant retard, l2hyperreal
also, .9... is not equal to 1
pic related, it's a 1fag

>> No.11699512

Every originally even function (with one side flipped) that is continuous and goes through origin will have integral from -inf to inf equal 0 and from -z to z equal 0 (where z is a real number)

>> No.11699519

>>11699494
>>11699512
Moron.

>> No.11699522

>>11699512
correct
>>11699519
fucktard

>> No.11699535

>>11699494
take your meds

>> No.11699540

>>11699535
>being this triggered by logic
>using a facebook-tier insult

>> No.11699544

>>11699494
>used wrong notation for -infinity to +infinity
Stopped reading there

>> No.11699566

>>11699544
>implying the integral should be the limit approaching infinity instead of the interval including infinity
kek at ur life kiddo

>> No.11699592

>>11699494
>>11699512
this is how the integral IS defined: [math]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}x \, dx = \lim_{a \to -\infty}\lim_{b \to \infty}\int_{a}^{b}x \, dx [/math]
this is how the interal IS NOT defined: [math]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}x \, dx = \lim_{a \to \infty}\int_{-a}^{a}x \, dx [/math].
the integral doesn't exist and you're wrong.

>> No.11701289

>>11699592
Doesn't change anything fucktard and regardless the integral is actually defined as the area between the curve and the x-axis, not as either of your dumb fuck nigger equations, if you have a problem take it up with Newton and Leibniz, I promise they would agree with me, the integral is 0 dumbfuck

>> No.11701309

>>11699512
you mean odd? x is an odd function

>> No.11701311

>>11701289
>Riemann integrals
>2020
yikes my dude

>> No.11701337

>>11701309
You're right. I didn't know that "odd" means going through origin and symmetrical, but flipped. I thought it just means "not even".

>> No.11701357

>>11699512
>>11699494
Why? Prove it.

>> No.11701390

>>11699494
I'm mean you're not wrong. The regularized integral is indeed 0.
[math]\int_{-\infty}^\infty x dx = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \lim_{\varepsilon \rightarrow 0^+} x \exp(-x^2 \varepsilon) \overset{!}{=} \lim_{\varepsilon \rightarrow 0^+} \int_{-\infty}^\infty x \exp(-x^2 \varepsilon) = \lim_{\varepsilon \rightarrow 0^+} 0 = 0[/math]

>> No.11701398
File: 97 KB, 1654x2339, proof.jpg [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
11701398

>>11699494
>>11701390
Nevermind, you are wrong about [math]0.\overline{9}[/math] not being equal to 1. It obviously is.

Let x = 0.999...
10x = 9.999...
9 + 0.999... = 9.999...
9 + x = 10x
10x - x = 9
9x = 9
x = 1

>> No.11702568
File: 17 KB, 569x349, RandLintegrals.png [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
11702568

>>11701311
>area under curve

>> No.11702740

>>11701289
>the integral is actually defined as the area between the curve and the x-axis, not as either of your dumb fuck nigger equations
source: my ass