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/sci/ - Science & Math


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10578703 No.10578703 [Reply] [Original]

[math]
\text{Let }A\text{ be a positive real number. What are the possible values of }\sum_{j=0}^\infty x_j^2,
\\
\text{given that }x_0,x_1,\ldots\text{ are positive numbers for which }\sum_{j=0}^\infty x_j=A\text{?}
[/math]

>> No.10578704

Previous Thread >>10576533

>> No.10578730

>>10578703
this ones easy isnt it
any positive number less than A^2

>> No.10578732

>>10578730
No work=no credit

>> No.10578735

>>10578730
Can't be zero either lad.

>> No.10578738

>>10578735
>any POSITIVE number

>> No.10578753

>>10578738
Sorry lad.
>>10578732
I could constructively prove that we can get arbitrarily close to zero in two lines, and then prove convexity.
But constructive proofs suck to type on mongolian image boards.

>> No.10578765

>>10578730
>any positive number
including rational numbers? and algebraic numbers?

>> No.10578811

Just use the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality ?

>> No.10578828

>>10578703
Thread theme
https://youtube.com/watch?v=Ssh71hePR8Q

>> No.10578887

I have a marvelous proof that the only possible sum is 12, which the post size limit of this board is too small to contain.

>> No.10579056

>>10578887
fucking autist

>> No.10579357

x_j for j is an element of [1,inf) must be a convergent sum.

summation from j=1 to inf of x_j = chi

design a convergent sum such that: A = x_0 + chi = 2*chi; x_0 = chi

For some value n, A = n*x_0 + chi / n, n > 0

summation of x_j^2 = chi (n^2 + 1/n^2) = A/2 * (n^2 + 1/n^2)

This shows that the summation is at least A to infinity.
let 0<m<1
Let x_j be the convergent sum (1-m)^j*m
lim m-> 1 of summation x_j^2 = 1^2 + 0*1^2 = 1
lim m->0 of summation of x_j^2 = 0^2+1*x^2 = 0

>> No.10579360

>>10579357
conclusion: summation of x_j^2 >0

>> No.10579408

>>10579357
woops, the second part of the proof only justifies (0,A^2). I'm not sure how to approach (A^2,A]

>> No.10579447

>>10578703
Clearly by choosing x1=p, x2=p^2, x3=p^3, etc we get sum(xi)=p/(1-p), let B = A*(1-p)/p; then sum(B*xi) = B*sum(xi) = A for any A. Then sum((B*xi)^2)=B^2*sum(xi^2)=A^2*(1-p)^2/p^2 * p^2/(1-p^2)= A^2 * (1-p)^2/(1-p^2). Choosing p close to 1 we get limit (1-p)^2/(1-p^2) tends to zero and is p tends to zero limit is 1,A^2 is fixed so possible values are (0, A^2). This was an easy one, probably the first in respective year.

>> No.10579458

>>10579447
Yeah I also forgot to say that the sum is clearly positive and not higher that A^2 (we can get it from square of the sum formula).

>> No.10579464

>>10579447
you would need the limiting sum to be valid to do that

>> No.10579476

>>10579464
Well it’s clearly valid, for any finite n: sum((B*xi)^2, i= 1 to n)=B*sum((xi)^2). We can see that partial sums converge. This applies to any series in my proof.

>> No.10579757
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10579757

>>10578703
Is it bad I can't solve any of these problems?

>> No.10579872

>>10579757
yes

>> No.10580156

>>10579757
The median score on the Putnam, a competition for undergrad math autists, is typically zero. So no.

>> No.10580300

>>10579476
you cant limit p to 1 or 0
if you could 0 and A^2 would also be valid

>> No.10580372

>>10580156
everyone being a retard doesn't mean it's ok to be one

>> No.10580380

>>10580300
Thx for response mate. I can limit p to 1 or 0 for S(p)=(1-p)^2/(1-p^2) because these limits exist, I never said I can limit p for the sum because it's meaningless: by construction 0< p < 1 or series and B diverge. But we can choose such p that the sum is close to 0 or A^2 as we want, i.e. 0 < sum < A^2.

>> No.10580473

Like this folk said:
>>10578730
Proof:
(A,0,0,...) shows A^2 is reached.
(A/N,A/N,...,A/N,0,0,...,) shows you get arbitrarily close to 0. Fiddling with continuity you get the interval (0,A].
There are no others:
Normalize and assume A=1, but then [math]x_i^2\leq x_i[/math]

>> No.10580481

>>10580473
Did not see that 0 can't happen. Put some epsilons and get (0,A^2).

>> No.10580487

>>10580473
Zero is not positive number

>> No.10580516

>>10580487
Yes, see correction
>>10580481

>> No.10580948

>>10579476
>>10579476
>>10580380
limiting p to 0 makes terms in your series 0, which is not valid
you've only shown that you can get your series arbitrarily close to a number, not equal to that number

>> No.10581029 [DELETED] 

>>10580948
wrong

>> No.10581035 [DELETED] 

>>10580948
Wrong. Series valid for any 0 < p < 1. Sum is fixed since B = (1-p)/p increases.
Seems like you just don't undertand the proof. Read it correctly.