/sci/ - Science & Math

[Anonymous No.10073050]

> be me, 30, on methadone
> get a world class blowjob last night, girlfriend swallows
> girlfriend feels bad, has all the symptoms of a opiates-naive person taking methadone for the first time

A paper confirms that methadone does go thru semen. But would the quantity be sufficient to cause symptoms on a opiate-naive person ?

> The concentration of methadone was measured in the semen of seven methadone maintenance subjects and compared with the concentration of the drug in blood. The daily dose of methadone in these subjects ranged between 20 and 80 mg and was administered by mouth in the local methadone clinic in the usual manner. Samples of blood and semen were obtained from each subject one to four hours after dosage. The concentration of methadone in the blood ranged between 59 and 126 ng/ml in six of the volunteers. The concentration of methadone in semen ranged between 73 and 420 ng/ml in the seven subjects. The ratio of the concentration of the drug in semen to the concentration in blood ranged from 0.82 to 4.72. Methadone is excreted in small amounts in human semen and is transmitted from male to female during sexual intercourse.

[Anonymous No.10073060]

it's not hard to figure it out, but I don't want "average ejaculation volume" in my search history

[Anonymous No.10073078]

Sorry, was lazy.
According to my low treatment dose , I assume a concentration value of (150ng/ml) and assuming 3.5ml semen (avg), that'd give something around 0.0005mg.
Wich gives an equianalgesia of 0.002mg of morphine. A common bolus of morphine being 5mg, it seems quite impossible to be the cause of her symptoms.

[Anonymous No.10074496]

>methadone
Winning, anon
saged