Why is this 'proof' so misleading? It only works for indertimate forms 0/0 or inf/inf, but according to the intuition in this screencap it should work everywhere. Wot.

File: 438 KB, 1920x1080, Lhopital.png [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]

Anonymous Fri Apr 12 02:17:31 2019 No.10549727 [Reply] [Original]

Why is this 'proof' so misleading? It only works for indertimate forms 0/0 or inf/inf, but according to the intuition in this screencap it should work everywhere. Wot.

Anonymous Fri Apr 12 11:06:27 2019 No.10550722

>>10549727
It's fucking obvious brainlet
The value of the function is the distance from the function value to the x axis, and df/dx(a) dx is the vertical change in the linear approximation (starting at the function value). Obviously, these two values would not be close when f(a) or g(a) are non-zero real numbers).

>>	Anonymous Fri Apr 12 11:09:33 2019 No.10550730 File: 334 KB, 700x700, 1555056784159.png [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google] >>10549727

>>	Anonymous Fri Apr 12 15:45:51 2019 No.10551759 File: 14 KB, 478x523, brainsplit.png [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google] >>10550730 t. I also just learned why

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