/sci/ - Science & Math

>>11127820
thanks
I know that sound is a basically a Fourier transform, and I know about overtones and harmonics and resonance, but I'm understanding what you're saying is the timbre is a relation of intensities between the overtones present in the sound?

the guitar model is the significantly simpler model as you're changing directly the material striking the string, and you can change where in the string you strike. whats strange to me is that the piano hammers never change, nor their position, only the material depressing the key. and yet still, the timbre changes.

this seems to me that there exists a function which determines various discrete values of velocity at which the timbral characteristics are defined as either hard or soft, and there must be some gradation within these values, say 2-2.9 = hard, 3-3
5 = soft, 3.6-4 = hard

but what's strange is all of this information is contained within the single quantity of the instantaneous velocity of the hammer when it leaves the action and flies to the string???

somehow a hammer moving at 1m/s will produce a hard sound, at 2m/s a soft sound, and at 3m/s a hard sound (arbitrary values)
there's a quality (timbre) oscillation occurring between velocities, and via some combination of some other values (my intuition says it's the accelerations acting on the key as it's depressed) the timbre is determined regardless of volume, which is entirely a product of the velocity of the hammer. somehow both characteristics are a product of the velocity, and, I'm guessing, accelerations determine which set of velocities are available to the hammer, determining which set of sounds are produced, soft or hard

an alternative explanation is that the hammer is somehow vibrating, and is itself constituted by harmonizing sinewaves, and this is no mere kinematics equation dealing with velocity and acceleration. because I'm struggling to see how merely velocity can determine all of these qualities