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>> No.11447778 [View]
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11447778

Is this proof good?
>If n is even, then (-1)^n = 1
Proof:
>Suppose n is even, then n = 2a
>So (-1)^2a = (-1)(-1)(-1)(-1)...(-1)(-1) 2a times
>Since n is even, there's a pairs of (-1)
>We already know that (-1)(-1) = 1
>So we end up with (1)(1)(1)...(1)(1) a times
>(1)(1)(1)...(1)(1) = 1
>Therefore, if n is even, then (-1)^n = 1

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