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/sci/ - Science & Math

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>> No.12631353 [View]
File: 101 KB, 640x363, chances of divorce after 5 years of marriage and sex partners correlation.png [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
12631353

>>12631346
Socially engineering people to make them 'feel good' is retarded. More sex partners = more disconnect.

>> No.12441133 [View]
File: 101 KB, 640x363, chances of divorce after 5 years of marriage and sex partners correlation.png [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
12441133

>>12440800
dubs of truth

>> No.11933522 [View]
File: 101 KB, 640x363, wolfinger-sex-partners-divorce-figure-1-1.png [View same] [iqdb] [saucenao] [google]
11933522

https://ifstudies.org/blog/counterintuitive-trends-in-the-link-between-premarital-sex-and-marital-stability

>Women with 10 or more partners were the most likely to divorce, but this only became true in recent years;
>Women with 3-9 partners were less likely to divorce than women with 2 partners; and,
>Women with 0-1 partners were the least likely to divorce.

This is an interesting study indicating that marriages where the women had less sex partners are less likely to divorce. This shit has been spouted on /pol/ for the longest time and it should come to no surprise to anyone who frequents there. But, what I'm curious about is the r2 (r-squared) value:
>0% indicates that the model explains none of the variability of the response data around its mean.
>100% indicates that the model explains all the variability of the response data around its mean.

I'm curious as to how much the female promiscuity amount actually contributes to the divorce. The r^2 value gives a percentage and indicates if there are many or few other contributing factors. If it's very low then it would indicate that promiscuity is not too much of an important factor in that given divorce, and that many other greater factors contributed to it. Are there any statisticians here to help explain the depth and importance of this study? And how much of an important factor is it in choosing a partner?

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