/sci/ - Science & Math

>>9543436
>>>9543493 >>9543515 >>9543620
Am I correct in thinking Conjecture 3.2 is trivial to prove as well?

Take any finite set of integers [math] T=\{a_1,...,a_n\}[/math] and let [math] T = \{-a_1,...,-a_n\} [/math]. Then [math] S = T \cup -T \cup \{0\} [/math] completes [math] T [/math] since [math] \prod_{i=1}^n a_i \prod_{i=1}^n (-a_i) * 0 = 0 * (\sum_{i=1}^n a_i +\sum_{i=1}^n -a_i + 0)[/math].