/sci/ - Science & Math

>>14959227
>d
[math]\displaystyle \lim_{x \to \infty} \left( 1 + \dfrac{a}{x} \right) ^{bx} = \lim_{x \to \infty} \left( \left( 1 + \dfrac{a}{x} \right)^x \right) ^b =\left( \lim_{x \to \infty} \left( 1 + \dfrac{a}{x} \right)^x \right) ^b = e^{ab}[/math]
Because [math]f(x) = x^b[/math] is continuous.