/sci/ - Science & Math

>>9412038
What would be the valid reasoning for copying something from the future to the past vs simply moving something from the future to the past?
if we treat w like xyz, thats more like asking what is the reason for moving something at (0,0,0,0) to (1,1,1,1) to (3,3,3,2) then "back" to (1,1,1,3), but what about then moving from (1,1,1,3) to (4,4,4,1)? Copying would violate causality but moving would make the w events look like (0,0,0,0),(4,4,4,1), so would (3,3,3,2),(1,1,1,3) still occur as of w=1 was a spliced frame from a different film ala fight club, or would w=2 and w=3 split off into seperate timelines?
(0,0,0,0),(1,1,1,1),(3,3,3,2),(1,1,1,3),(4,4,4,1)
[math]\prec\longrightarrow[/math](4,4,4,1), . . .
what is the enclosed loop block? Does is register as knowablex recordable memory in the lower dimensions? Could lower dimensional entities remember (1,1,1,1),(3,3,3,2)(1,1,1,3) happening, or would they only recall (0,0,0,0),(4,4,4,1)?

Is this fucking erasing time?
does this fucking happen?