/sci/ - Science & Math

>>7710722
I'm not sure either.

Inflation isn't important for the initial question though. I brought it up because, as I understood it, it had something to do with Hawking and Hartle's no-boundary condition. Wikipedia summarizes the conditions like the following:

"artle and Hawking suggest that if we could travel backward in time toward the beginning of the universe, we would note that quite near what might have otherwise been the beginning, time gives way to space such that at first there is only space and no time. "

Here is the technical explanation:

"The Hartle–Hawking state is the wave function of the Universe—a notion meant to figure out how the Universe started—that is calculated from Feynman's path integral.

More precisely, it is a hypothetical vector in the Hilbert space of a theory of quantum gravity that describes this wave function.

It is a functional of the metric tensor defined at a (D − 1)-dimensional compact surface, the Universe, where D is the spacetime dimension. The precise form of the Hartle–Hawking state is the path integral over all D-dimensional geometries that have the required induced metric on their boundary. According to the theory time diverged from three state dimension—as we know the time now[clarification needed]—after the universe was at the age of the Planck time.[2]

Such a wave function of the Universe can be shown to satisfy the Wheeler–DeWitt equation."

Stephen Hawking, in the Grand Design, and in various lectures, stated for time to behave like space, there had to be gravity present to warp space-time. Or something along those lines. What made me pose the initial question was the fact that he used "warp" and "warpage" and so forth, as he explained it, and not curvature, which was the term he had used before.