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>> No.10109058 [View]
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10109058

>>10108855
Yes, this is the normal way to show a multiplicative inverse exists.

>Claiming you can divide by y states there is a multiplicative inverse of y.
Your argument is circular because at the step
>1*y/y = 1
you assume that y has a multiplicative inverse.

>>10108858
>That existed long before you, so gtfo
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