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>> No.11835227 [View]
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11835227

>>11835201
unless you're retarded it's not really news,
but modulo prime p, there are p-1 nonzero residues.
assume the condition "a is coprime with p" is met,
then [math]x \mapsto ax[/math] is a bijection on the nonzero residues set.
now multiply everything by sides and you will see
that [math]a^{p-1}[/math] equals 1 mod p.
all of this is a distant memory
of times when i didn't know basic group theory

>> No.10941976 [View]
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10941976

>>10938786
cringe but redpilled

>> No.10901118 [View]
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10901118

>>10900719
measure theory has the funniest examples
>there is a subset of [0,1] which has outer measure 1 and also its complement has outer measure 1
>there is a function [math] f : [0,1]^2 \rightarrow \{0,1\}[/math], such that [math]\int_0^1 f(x,y) dy = 0[/math] for any [math]x \in [0,1][/math],
but also [math]\int_0^1 f(x,y) dx = 1[/math] for any [math]y \in [0,1][/math]
>banach-tarski but its been memed too much

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