/sci/ - Science & Math

derp_commander !!SSXdvR3LCoa Mon May 23 14:41:27 2016 No.8094400 [View]
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>>8094390
That's the thing: I've never heard of a rigorous explanation for why it should apply in all situations, and in all spacetime topologies.

I'm not the first to notice this. http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/4690/1/CausalFundam.pdf
http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.129.191&rep=rep1&type=pdf
and
http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/003004.pdf
have all noticed this, but they've mostly come at it from a philosophical angle. I'm more interested in what the concrete implications are, assuming we define causality in a consistent way.

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/sci/ - Science & Math

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