/sci/ - Science & Math

If no one in this thread makes the proof they all say is so simple, then the reason is because they know the "proof" is satisfied with vectors which are merely "Dirac orthonormal." I definitely could be forgetting something, and I may have missed it the first time around, but I looked at this quite closely and convinced myself that Dirac orthonormality of spin eigenvectors is not ruled out, and I am ABSOLUTELY COMPLETE SURE that two vectors which are "Dirac orthonormal" are not orthonormal at all.

If it's so simple, and you all have been trying to prove me wrong by trolling every thread I've made for years now, and you could easily disprove me now, but you choose not to stomp on my wrongness in front of everyone by copying and pasting some elementary thing from linear algebra, then we will know you are all a bunch of bullshitters and that I am absolutely correct. If you do post it, and I cannot find the wiggle room, then I will concede that I was wrong and withdraw my paper.