/sci/ - Science & Math

>>11690264
>what did he mean by this
>>11692477
>doesn't that kind of already show that the function that we're using to model our series is also going to 0?
A function [math]f[/math] such that [math]\int_a^{\infty}f(x) ~ dx[/math] exists does converge to zero at infinity, yes, but the inverse doesn't apply. See for example [math]f(x)=1/x[/math].
If that's not what you meant, feel free to elaborate.
>>11692584
>product rule
That's just the third term vanishing.
>quotient rule
That's just algebraic manipulation on the product rule.
>chain rule
If I play a movie at twice the speed, the characters move twice as fast.
Specifically, their speed at the time [math]t[/math] is twice the speed they'd have had at time [math]2t[/math] if I played the movie normally (because that's the same scene, obviously).