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/sci/ - Science & Math

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>> No.11141224 [View]
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11141224

asking on SQT because I probably did a stupid proof.

We know that there exists an N such that if b >N, then |int_1^b g(x)- A| < epsilon for some A. Since g > |f|, we also know that if b > N then |int_1^b f(x) - A| < epsilon.

this feels incorrect, can someone guide me

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