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>> No.15010687 [View]
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15010687

So does [math]m_{B_1\; \cap B_2} = \inf_{x\in\mathcal{B} }f(x)[/math], where [math]\mathcal{B}[/math] is any base that contains [math]B_1 \cap B_2[/math], or is it a typo and supposed to be [math]m_{B_1\; \cap B_2} = \inf_{x\in B_1 \cap B_2 }f(x)[/math]?

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