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>> No.11858712 [View]
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11858712

>>11858444

> Kant does not demonstrate how a type of intuition is discrete from or containing of sensation.

Have you read any version of Kant's Transcendental Aesthetic?

> Would a person born blind and immobile truly have the same intuition of space as we do?

If that person's mind could receive no sensory data in spatial form, then that person wouldn't be conscious of spatial dimensions - and this wouldn't challenge Kant's system in the least. This is why is why he is careful to say that although cognition undeniably BEGINS WITH experience, it does not therefore DERIVE FROM experience. An individual could have a priori faculties that are never given the chance to activate, due to a peculiar condition of the individual that nonetheless isn't typical of the capacities of the individual's species.

> Furthermore, if sensation is contained by pure intuition and we do not perceive it, then pure intuition is noumenal and we can't speculate about its nature with certainty.

You seem to be assuming the consequent.

> If X is noumenal, then X is not perceivable.

is not the same as

> if X is not perceivable, then X is noumenal

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