/lit/ - Literature

>>13956968
Why is it in the self-interest of the working class to appropriate the means of production? Why can this be generalized to every single individual of the working class? Why do they 'need' to do so? An 'ought' cannot be derived from an 'is'

Again, who are the capitalist owning class, who are the working class. Say I own a computer on which I write code, and I hire people to help me write code. Am I of the 'owning class'? Do they appropriate my computer? Is it personal property or private property as I use it for monetary gain and for production? Do they appropriate my project, that which I started and am the main contributor to?

Even if you say that I am owning class in relation to the people I hire, say I am also a worker at a retail store. My boss would be to me what I am to the people I hire, would they not? These relational classes are relative and cannot be generalized, at least it seems that way to me.