/lit/ - Literature

>>19745603
Also here is Ott's reference to Luke 1:28. He notes that the actual meaning of κεχαριτωμένη is in reference to Mary being chosen as the mother of God. Everything he says after that is what is meant by "implicit." None of it is present in the text at all. It is a concept that is derived from somewhere else and then fed back into this verse because it seems like it will fit there. But the verse is saying nothing of the sort and making no reference to any such things. Mary is hailed as highly favored of God because God has chosen her to be the mother of his son. Even the Catholic dogmatician states that this is what the text is actually saying. Furthermore his argument is specious. He says that because Mary has been given a unique blessing, that the blessing must therefore be "perfect" (where does this come from? is there something deficient in being blessed with being Christ's mother?) and therefore must extend over her entire life beginning in conception. This is laughable as none of these facts necessitate the other.