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>> No.13738823 [View]
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13738823

>>13738535
if each coinflip is independent (a commonly valid assumption), then Bayes is not needed, since P(A|B)=P(A) when independent events


but OP intentionally worded it so that no matter what answer is given, he can appear "smart"
its a childish loaded question, giving the equivalent of 1 equation with 2 unknowns

there is no right answer, because the question leaves out essential information needed (if standard assumptions are ignored) to get a "right" answer

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